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AP Biology Mitosis, Meiosis



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Cancer can result from a variety of different mutational events. Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in the initiation of a cancerous tumor?
a.
A receptor mutation results in activation of a cell-division pathway in the absence of the appropriate ligand.
c.
A defect in a cell-cycle checkpoint prevents a cell from entering the S phase.
b.
A mutation results in the loss of the ability to produce a tumor-suppressor protein.
d.
At the anaphase checkpoint, separation of chromatids occurs without all centromeres being attached to kinetochore microtubules from both poles.
 

 2. 

mc002-1.jpg

The p53 protein regulates a cellular response to DNA damage. Based on the diagram above, which of the following best describes the role of p53 in the response to DNA damage?
a.
Phosphorylated p53 binds to DNA and repairs the damage.
c.
Phosphorylated p53 binds cyclin-Cdk complexes, and the resulting protein complex repairs the DNAdamage.
b.
Phosphorylated p53 stimulates transcription of p21, and the resulting p21 protein suppresses cell divisionuntil the DNA damage is repaired.
d.
Phosphorylated p53 activates p21 proteins, and the p21 proteins in turn repair the DNA damage.
 

 3. 

mc003-1.jpg
Based on the model of eukaryotic cell cycle regulation shown in the figure above, which of the following best describes the effect of a drug that blocks the production of the mitotic cyclin?
a.
The cell cycle would proceed uncontrollably, and the cell would become cancerous.
c.
DNA synthesis would be prevented, and the cell would stop dividing.
b.
The G1 cyclin would functionally replace mitotic cyclin, and the cell would continue dividing normally.
d.
The cell would be prevented from entering mitosis, and the cell would stop dividing.
 

 4. 

Which of the following best describes the role of mitosis in the cell cycle?
a.
Distributing replicated chromosomes to daughter nuclei
c.
Producing organelles and replicatingchromosomes
b.
Dividing the cytoplasm to form four gametes
d.
Exchanging genetic material between homologous chromosomes
 

 5. 

Which of the following is most likely to create genetic variation in a population?
a.
RNA polymerase errors during transcription
c.
DNA polymerase errors during replication
b.
Helicase failure to unwind DNA during DNAreplication
d.
Misincorporation of amino acids by tRNAduring translation
 

 6. 

Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?
a.
4
b.
8
c.
16
d.
32
 
 
Use the following information to answer the questions below.

The unlettered circle at the top of Figure 9.1 shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A–E show various combinations of these chromosomes.

nar001-1.jpg
Figure 9.1
 

 7. 

What is the correct chromosomal condition for one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 
 
The following questions are based on Figure 9.3.

nar002-1.jpg
Figure 9.3
 

 8. 

In Figure 9.3, mitosis is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
 

 9. 

G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?
a.
I or V
b.
II or IV
c.
III only
d.
IV only
 

 10. 

Which number represents DNA synthesis?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
 

 11. 

Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
 

 12. 

At which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase?
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
IV only
 

 13. 

MPF reaches its threshold concentration at the end of this stage.
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
 

 14. 

In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated in order to contribute to a cell developing into a cancer cell, supporting Knudsen's hypothesis. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated?
a.
genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon
b.
genes involved in control of the cell cycle
c.
genes that are especially susceptible to mutation
d.
the same genes that Knudsen identified as associated with retinoblastoma
e.
the genes of the bacteria that are abundant in the colon
 
 
End-of-Chapter Questions
 

 15. 

Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they
a.
express different genes.
b.
contain different genes.
c.
use different genetic codes.
d.
have unique ribosomes.
e.
have different chromosomes.
 

 16. 

Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?
a.
Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections.
b.
Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division.
c.
Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk."
d.
Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes.
e.
Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age.
 
 
Use the data in Table 9.1 to answer the following questions.

The data were obtained from a study of the length of time spent in each phase of the cell cycle by cells of three eukaryotic organisms designated beta, delta, and gamma.

nar004-1.jpg
Table 9.1
Minutes Spent in Cell Cycle Phases
 

 17. 

Of the following, the best conclusion concerning the difference between the S phases for beta and gamma is that
a.
gamma contains more DNA than beta.
b.
beta and gamma contain the same amount of DNA.
c.
beta cells reproduce asexually.
d.
gamma contains 48 times more DNA and RNA than beta.
e.
beta is a plant cell and gamma is an animal cell.
 

 18. 

The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells
a.
contain no DNA.
b.
contain no RNA.
c.
contain only one chromosome that is very short.
d.
are actually in the G0 phase.
e.
divide in the G1 phase.
 
 
Use the following information to answer the next few questions.

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.
 

 19. 

Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow
a.
in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline.
b.
only in the broth containing both antibiotics.
c.
in the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin.
d.
in all four types of broth.
e.
in the nutrient broth without antibiotics only.
 

 20. 

Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow
a.
in the nutrient broth only.
b.
in the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only.
c.
in the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth.
d.
in all four types of broth.
e.
in the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth.
 

 21. 

Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?
a.
the nutrient broth only
b.
the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth
c.
the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth
d.
the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth
e.
all three broths
 

Numeric Response
 

 22. 

A researcher proposes that the transmembrane portion of a certain protein consists of 24 amino acids. Based on the proposed model, calculate the number of nucleotides in the mRNA that encode only the amino acids in the transmembrane portion of the protein.

 

Short Answer
 

 23. 


(3pts)
sa023-1.jpg

The p53 and MDM2 proteins are involved in the DNA damage response pathway (Figure 1). In the absence of DNA damage, MDM2 mediates the degradation of p53. In the presence of DNA damage, p53 is not broken down and forms active tetramers that stimulate the expression of genes that block cell cycle progression.

Red blood cells are produced by the division and differentiation of multipotent stem cells. Researchers have observed that mice with a partial loss-of-function mutation in the MDM2 gene have a lower concentration of red blood cells in the blood than do mice that express the wild-type MDM2 allele.(

a) Using the model of the p53/MDM2 pathway, connect the reduction of MDM2 function in mutant mice to the observed concentration of red blood cells.

(b) Predict how a loss-of-function mutation in the p53 gene is most likely to affect the cell cycle in response to DNA damage. Justify your predictions.
 



 
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